Bible Infallibility...Where From It Come?
Why is it that people believe the bible to be "Infallible" and maintain
it is "The Word of God" when neither the Bible, nor God Himself, claim
such such about it. The belief that the Bible is the "Word of God and
infallible, is a devil-inspired, man-invented fallacy to combat pagan
philosophy and create validity to strengthen the holding power of
religion over people in its bid to use the Bible to maintain control over them through manipulation and fear-mongering.
Religious manipulators refer to 2 Timothy 3:16 as a proof text that the Bible is infallible; however, that is to use the verse out of context, in that the “Scriptures” referenced, refer to the Old Testament scriptures, further more the term “inspiration” does not mean “Word of God”. Nowhere in the Bible does it claim to be infallible...NOWHERE! Yet, religion teaches it as being biblical, not the Bible or God. In fact, many of the authors of Scripture had no idea that their books would be compiled and canonized by fallible men into a book named the Bible and called the “Infallible Word of God”. Even in Paul’s epistles, he made it clear that he was writing personal letters, not dictating whatever God was telling him to write down. Paul even says literally in his epistles that these are his words, and not God’s!
There are two inexplicit verses used to prove that the Bible is "The Word of God" however, these verses pose problems and raise more questions that preachers don’t address, because they can’t.
One verse is: 2 Timothy 3:16
"All scripture is given by inspiration of God and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness."
The term "All Scripture" logically cannot refer to the New Testament because there was no such thing when the words were written, therefore it refers to the Old Testament because, Jesus used the word scripture many times to refer to the Old Testament, so to be consistent we must logically conclude that here as well, also at the time this verse was written, because the New Testament as we know it today did not exist, therefore, given that evangelical Christian theology is based mainly on the teachings of the New Testament, this verse doesn’t really support the core Christian theological teachings of today!
Words are just that...words. They don’t create reality or fact. Therefore, just because this verse (according to religious people) implies that the Bible is "The Word of God" doesn’t make the whole Bible "The Word of God". In fact, Not even Paul claimed that his letters and epistles were "The Word of God".
Although the Bible claims and does contain the words of God when it says "The Lord spoke" or "Thus sayeth the Lord", without a doubt, whatever words God spoke are inspired, that doesn't mean that when Paul said "I say" this and that, that God spoke the words. or that they are inspired.
Another verse used to claim divine inspiration of the Bible is: 2 Peter 1: 20-21.
“Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation. For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost.”
Again, it obviously is referring to the prophecies of Old Testament prophets and Old Testament scriptures, not to the whole Bible, although the inerrancy prompters use the fulfillment of Old Testament prophecies to validate "whole Bible inerrancy"
However, the New Testament does claim that the Bible is NOT the exact words spoke by God or that it is "The Word of God!
1 Corinthians 7:12
"But to the rest speak I, not the Lord: If any brother hath a wife that believeth not, and she be pleased to dwell with him, let him not put her away."
The Apostle Paul clearly says here in the first sentence "speak I, NOT the Lord". He is saying that these words he is about to say are from him and not God! This alone technically invalidates the religious doctrine that every word in the Bible is uttered directly by God. It alone shatters this absolute claim of infallibility because man is fallible and prone to making errors.
There are two more similar verses like it that should dissolve the doctrine of inerrancy even further. Later in the same chapter, Paul says in 1 Corinthians 7:25, "Now concerning virgins I have no commandment of the Lord: yet I give my judgment, as one that hath obtained mercy of the Lord to be faithful."
It is evident here that Paul is letting us know that he is using his best personal understanding of the matter, and that what he's saying is not directly from God therefore, not inspired? He is telling you that he is writing his own opinion. Then, in Paul’s next letter to the Corinthians, he says in 2 Corinthians 11:17, "That which I speak, I speak it not after the Lord, but as it were foolishly, in this confidence of boasting."
Paul again claims that God did not inspire his words, thus the whole Bible is not inspired or even the words of God therefore, the whole Bible cannot be "The Word of God".
Bible infallibleness believers, when countered with these verses, usually respond by claiming that Paul was adding to Jesus' commands, or Paul was being inspired without himself knowing it. These explanations are very weak indeed and don’t even address the issue of infallibility. These verses discount the doctrine of Biblical infallibility!
In addition, all one has to do is to take a look at the opening line of the epistles in the New Testament by Paul and other writers, and you will easily notice that the author is addressing his “letter” to a specific group of believers at the time. This means that it is obvious in clear language that they were writing a letter for certain people or congregations, to either instruct them or give them encouragement, and not writing some infallible scriptures to form a Bible to represent God’s word verbatim to all mankind!
What is odd is that while the religionist emphasize this doctrine of Biblical infallibility so strongly and obsessively as if it were the central issue, the Bible itself does not. In fact, these infalliblests only have two vague verses they use to justify this man-ordained belief. If the doctrine of Biblical infallibility is so central to the community of the redeemed as is claimed by religionist, why are there only two verses, (as vague as they are) about it, out of over 33,000?
The doctrine of Biblical infallibility was not a belief of the early Church. Historical evidence indicates that it was religions way of protecting their people from the danger of doctrines that did not agree with their religious view, and it served their personal religious agendas as well. Without the doctrine that the whole Bible is infallible and that every word was God ordained, people would dispute the validity of their myriad of man-made doctrines. Their fear was that people could then pick and choose which parts of the Bible they wanted to be God’s word and which they didn’t, and that would greatly undermine its authority as to the authority of their interpretations and they would no longer be able to manipulate or control the pew-warmers. So this doctrine was necessary, and still is, to keep the wheel of religion turning.
Religious manipulators refer to 2 Timothy 3:16 as a proof text that the Bible is infallible; however, that is to use the verse out of context, in that the “Scriptures” referenced, refer to the Old Testament scriptures, further more the term “inspiration” does not mean “Word of God”. Nowhere in the Bible does it claim to be infallible...NOWHERE! Yet, religion teaches it as being biblical, not the Bible or God. In fact, many of the authors of Scripture had no idea that their books would be compiled and canonized by fallible men into a book named the Bible and called the “Infallible Word of God”. Even in Paul’s epistles, he made it clear that he was writing personal letters, not dictating whatever God was telling him to write down. Paul even says literally in his epistles that these are his words, and not God’s!
There are two inexplicit verses used to prove that the Bible is "The Word of God" however, these verses pose problems and raise more questions that preachers don’t address, because they can’t.
One verse is: 2 Timothy 3:16
"All scripture is given by inspiration of God and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness."
The term "All Scripture" logically cannot refer to the New Testament because there was no such thing when the words were written, therefore it refers to the Old Testament because, Jesus used the word scripture many times to refer to the Old Testament, so to be consistent we must logically conclude that here as well, also at the time this verse was written, because the New Testament as we know it today did not exist, therefore, given that evangelical Christian theology is based mainly on the teachings of the New Testament, this verse doesn’t really support the core Christian theological teachings of today!
Words are just that...words. They don’t create reality or fact. Therefore, just because this verse (according to religious people) implies that the Bible is "The Word of God" doesn’t make the whole Bible "The Word of God". In fact, Not even Paul claimed that his letters and epistles were "The Word of God".
Although the Bible claims and does contain the words of God when it says "The Lord spoke" or "Thus sayeth the Lord", without a doubt, whatever words God spoke are inspired, that doesn't mean that when Paul said "I say" this and that, that God spoke the words. or that they are inspired.
Another verse used to claim divine inspiration of the Bible is: 2 Peter 1: 20-21.
“Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation. For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost.”
Again, it obviously is referring to the prophecies of Old Testament prophets and Old Testament scriptures, not to the whole Bible, although the inerrancy prompters use the fulfillment of Old Testament prophecies to validate "whole Bible inerrancy"
However, the New Testament does claim that the Bible is NOT the exact words spoke by God or that it is "The Word of God!
1 Corinthians 7:12
"But to the rest speak I, not the Lord: If any brother hath a wife that believeth not, and she be pleased to dwell with him, let him not put her away."
The Apostle Paul clearly says here in the first sentence "speak I, NOT the Lord". He is saying that these words he is about to say are from him and not God! This alone technically invalidates the religious doctrine that every word in the Bible is uttered directly by God. It alone shatters this absolute claim of infallibility because man is fallible and prone to making errors.
There are two more similar verses like it that should dissolve the doctrine of inerrancy even further. Later in the same chapter, Paul says in 1 Corinthians 7:25, "Now concerning virgins I have no commandment of the Lord: yet I give my judgment, as one that hath obtained mercy of the Lord to be faithful."
It is evident here that Paul is letting us know that he is using his best personal understanding of the matter, and that what he's saying is not directly from God therefore, not inspired? He is telling you that he is writing his own opinion. Then, in Paul’s next letter to the Corinthians, he says in 2 Corinthians 11:17, "That which I speak, I speak it not after the Lord, but as it were foolishly, in this confidence of boasting."
Paul again claims that God did not inspire his words, thus the whole Bible is not inspired or even the words of God therefore, the whole Bible cannot be "The Word of God".
Bible infallibleness believers, when countered with these verses, usually respond by claiming that Paul was adding to Jesus' commands, or Paul was being inspired without himself knowing it. These explanations are very weak indeed and don’t even address the issue of infallibility. These verses discount the doctrine of Biblical infallibility!
In addition, all one has to do is to take a look at the opening line of the epistles in the New Testament by Paul and other writers, and you will easily notice that the author is addressing his “letter” to a specific group of believers at the time. This means that it is obvious in clear language that they were writing a letter for certain people or congregations, to either instruct them or give them encouragement, and not writing some infallible scriptures to form a Bible to represent God’s word verbatim to all mankind!
What is odd is that while the religionist emphasize this doctrine of Biblical infallibility so strongly and obsessively as if it were the central issue, the Bible itself does not. In fact, these infalliblests only have two vague verses they use to justify this man-ordained belief. If the doctrine of Biblical infallibility is so central to the community of the redeemed as is claimed by religionist, why are there only two verses, (as vague as they are) about it, out of over 33,000?
The doctrine of Biblical infallibility was not a belief of the early Church. Historical evidence indicates that it was religions way of protecting their people from the danger of doctrines that did not agree with their religious view, and it served their personal religious agendas as well. Without the doctrine that the whole Bible is infallible and that every word was God ordained, people would dispute the validity of their myriad of man-made doctrines. Their fear was that people could then pick and choose which parts of the Bible they wanted to be God’s word and which they didn’t, and that would greatly undermine its authority as to the authority of their interpretations and they would no longer be able to manipulate or control the pew-warmers. So this doctrine was necessary, and still is, to keep the wheel of religion turning.
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